IBPS SO HR Officer Mock Test 2026 Free Series

An IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer mock test is a timed practice paper built on the current Prelims and Mains pattern, covering English Language, Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and Professional Knowledge in HR. Attempt free questions below, see your score instantly and track weak sections before the real exam.

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Question 1 of 103

Q1: Which of the following is considered the primary function of Human Resource Management? ▼

Acquisition, development, and retention of employees Only recruitment of staff Only payroll processing Only conducting exit interviews

Q2: Job analysis primarily results in the creation of which two documents? ▼

Job description and job specification Appraisal form and appointment letter Salary slip and offer letter Attendance sheet and leave form

Q3: Which recruitment source is considered an internal source? ▼

Promotion of existing employees Campus placement Employment exchange Advertisement in newspapers

Q4: Which of the following is an external source of recruitment? ▼

Campus recruitment Transfer Promotion Internal job posting

Q5: The process of selecting the right candidate from a pool of applicants is called? ▼

Selection Recruitment Induction Placement

Q6: Which selection test measures a candidate's ability to learn new skills? ▼

Aptitude test Personality test Interest test Achievement test

Q7: An achievement test primarily measures? ▼

What a person has already learned Future potential Personality traits Physical fitness

Q8: Which type of interview involves multiple interviewers assessing a single candidate simultaneously? ▼

Panel interview Stress interview Depth interview Group interview

Q9: In a stress interview, the interviewer primarily assesses the candidate's? ▼

Behavior under pressure Technical knowledge only Physical stamina Written communication

Q10: Induction training is primarily given to? ▼

Newly joined employees Retiring employees Senior management only Contract workers only

Q11: On the job training methods include which of the following? ▼

Job rotation Case study method Role playing Lecture method

Q12: Which of the following is an off the job training method? ▼

Case study method Job rotation Coaching Apprenticeship

Q13: The systematic evaluation of an employee's performance is known as? ▼

Performance appraisal Job evaluation Job analysis Manpower planning

Q14: The 360 degree performance appraisal method collects feedback from? ▼

Supervisors, peers, subordinates, and self Only the immediate supervisor Only customers Only the HR department

Q15: Which appraisal method ranks employees from best to worst performer? ▼

Ranking method Rating scale method Checklist method Critical incident method

Q16: The Halo effect in performance appraisal refers to? ▼

Rating an employee high on all traits based on one positive trait Rating all employees equally Ignoring poor performance Comparing employees to a fixed standard

Q17: Job evaluation is primarily used to determine? ▼

Relative worth of a job for setting compensation Employee attendance Training needs Recruitment sources

Q18: Which job evaluation method compares each job as a whole against other jobs? ▼

Ranking method Point method Factor comparison method Classification method

Q19: The point method of job evaluation assigns value based on? ▼

Compensable factors like skill and responsibility Employee seniority Market demand only Company profits

Q20: Which of the following is a direct financial compensation to employees? ▼

Basic salary Job security Flexible work hours Recognition

Q21: Fringe benefits are also known as? ▼

Indirect compensation Direct compensation Incentive pay Piece rate wages

Q22: Which wage system pays employees based on units of output produced? ▼

Piece rate system Time rate system Fixed salary system Skill based pay

Q23: The time rate wage system pays employees based on? ▼

Hours worked regardless of output Units produced Company profit share Overtime hours only

Q24: Which of the following Acts governs the payment of minimum wages to workers in India? ▼

Minimum Wages Act, 1948 Payment of Wages Act, 1936 Factories Act, 1948 Payment of Bonus Act, 1965

Q25: The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 primarily regulates? ▼

Timely payment of wages without unauthorized deductions Bonus distribution Employee provident fund Gratuity payments

Q26: Under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, which employees are eligible for statutory bonus? ▼

Employees drawing wages within the prescribed limit under the Act Only managerial staff Only contract employees All employees regardless of wages

Q27: The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 applies to employees who have completed how many years of continuous service? ▼

Five years Three years One year Ten years

Q28: Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act is calculated based on? ▼

Last drawn salary and years of service Total company profit Number of promotions Number of leaves taken

Q29: The Employees Provident Fund Organisation was established under which Act? ▼

Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 Payment of Wages Act, 1936 Factories Act, 1948 Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Q30: The Employees State Insurance Act provides which benefit to workers? ▼

Medical and sickness benefits Housing loans Retirement pension only Education scholarships

Q31: The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 primarily deals with? ▼

Investigation and settlement of industrial disputes Recruitment procedures Wage fixation only Employee training

Q32: Under the Industrial Disputes Act, a lockout refers to? ▼

Closing of a workplace by the employer Employees refusing to work Termination of a single employee Voluntary retirement scheme

Q33: A strike under the Industrial Disputes Act is defined as? ▼

A cessation of work by a group of employees acting together Termination of employment Suspension of an employee Transfer of workers

Q34: Which authority resolves industrial disputes through conciliation under the Industrial Disputes Act? ▼

Conciliation Officer Labour Court judge only Company Secretary Trade union leader

Q35: The Trade Unions Act was enacted in which year? ▼

1926 1947 1948 1972

Q36: Minimum number of members required to form a registered trade union in India is? ▼

Seven Ten Five Fifteen

Q37: The Factories Act, 1948 primarily aims to regulate? ▼

Working conditions in factories Recruitment of factory workers Wage negotiations Trade union activities

Q38: Under the Factories Act, the maximum working hours per week for an adult worker is? ▼

48 hours 60 hours 40 hours 54 hours

Q39: The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 provides paid maternity leave of how many weeks? ▼

26 weeks 12 weeks 20 weeks 30 weeks

Q40: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act was enacted in which year? ▼

2013 2005 2010 2019

Q41: Under the POSH Act, every organization with 10 or more employees must constitute a? ▼

Internal Complaints Committee Grievance Redressal Board Disciplinary Committee Wage Committee

Q42: Which of the following four labour codes consolidated wage related laws in India? ▼

Code on Wages, 2019 Industrial Relations Code, 2020 Occupational Safety Code, 2020 Social Security Code, 2020

Q43: The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 consolidated which older Acts? ▼

Trade Unions Act, Industrial Disputes Act, and Standing Orders Act Factories Act and Mines Act Maternity Benefit Act and Payment of Bonus Act Gratuity Act and Provident Fund Act

Q44: The Code on Social Security, 2020 primarily consolidates laws relating to? ▼

Provident fund, gratuity, ESI, and maternity benefits Factory safety only Trade union recognition Minimum wages only

Q45: Manpower planning is primarily concerned with? ▼

Forecasting future human resource needs of an organization Fixing employee salaries Conducting performance appraisals Designing office layouts

Q46: Succession planning primarily focuses on? ▼

Preparing employees to fill key leadership positions in the future Recruiting fresh graduates Reducing employee turnover cost Conducting exit interviews

Q47: Which of the following best defines organizational culture? ▼

Shared values, beliefs, and practices within an organization The physical layout of an office The company's annual revenue The number of employees in a company

Q48: Which leadership style involves the leader making decisions without consulting subordinates? ▼

Autocratic leadership Democratic leadership Laissez faire leadership Transformational leadership

Q49: Under democratic leadership, decision making primarily involves? ▼

Participation of team members Sole authority of the leader No involvement of any staff Only external consultants

Q50: Laissez faire leadership is characterized by? ▼

Minimal interference from the leader, allowing employees freedom Strict control over all decisions Frequent monitoring of employees Centralized decision making

Q51: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs places physiological needs at which level? ▼

The base level The top level The middle level There is no fixed level

Q52: According to Maslow, self actualization needs represent? ▼

The highest level of the need hierarchy Basic survival needs Social belonging needs Safety and security needs

Q53: Herzberg's Two Factor Theory classifies job factors into? ▼

Hygiene factors and motivator factors Internal and external factors Primary and secondary factors Financial and non financial factors

Q54: Which of the following is considered a hygiene factor under Herzberg's theory? ▼

Salary Recognition Achievement Growth opportunity

Q55: McGregor's Theory X assumes that employees are generally? ▼

Lazy and require close supervision Self motivated and responsible Naturally creative Focused only on teamwork

Q56: McGregor's Theory Y assumes that employees are? ▼

Self directed and motivated to achieve organizational goals Inherently lazy Uninterested in responsibility Motivated only by punishment

Q57: Which term refers to the rate at which employees leave an organization and are replaced? ▼

Employee turnover Employee engagement Absenteeism Attrition planning

Q58: High absenteeism in an organization is generally an indicator of? ▼

Low employee morale or dissatisfaction Strong organizational culture High productivity Effective leadership

Q59: Which of the following is a quantitative method of manpower forecasting? ▼

Ratio trend analysis Delphi technique Brainstorming Nominal group technique

Q60: The Delphi technique in manpower planning primarily relies on? ▼

Expert opinions gathered through structured rounds Statistical regression models Employee surveys only Financial ratio analysis

Q61: Employee engagement primarily refers to? ▼

The emotional commitment an employee has toward the organization The number of hours worked The employee's salary level The size of the HR department

Q62: A grievance in an organizational context refers to? ▼

Any dissatisfaction affecting an employee related to employment A formal resignation letter A promotion request An approved leave application

Q63: Which of the following is the first step in a typical grievance handling procedure? ▼

Employee reports grievance to immediate supervisor Filing a court case Approaching the Labour Commissioner Resigning from the job

Q64: Collective bargaining primarily involves negotiation between? ▼

Employers and trade unions Two competing companies Government and citizens Shareholders and auditors

Q65: Which of the following best describes a Standing Order under labour law? ▼

Rules defining terms and conditions of employment in an establishment A court order for wage disputes A trade union charter A government subsidy scheme

Q66: The Industrial Employment Standing Orders Act was enacted in which year? ▼

1946 1926 1947 1972

Q67: Which of the following is a form of unfair labour practice under Indian labour law? ▼

Victimization of workers for trade union activities Providing paid leave Timely payment of wages Conducting employee training

Q68: HR audit primarily refers to? ▼

A systematic review of HR policies, procedures, and practices Financial audit of company accounts Audit of production quality Audit of marketing strategy

Q69: Which of the following is an example of a competency based interview question? ▼

Describe a situation where you resolved a conflict at work What is your date of birth What is your father's occupation Where do you currently live

Q70: The term 'talent management' primarily refers to? ▼

Attracting, developing, and retaining skilled employees Only recruiting fresh graduates Managing office assets Handling payroll systems

Q71: Which of the following best defines organizational development? ▼

A planned effort to improve organizational effectiveness and health A one time training session A financial restructuring process A marketing campaign

Q72: A Human Resource Information System is primarily used for? ▼

Storing and managing employee related data digitally Managing company inventory Tracking customer complaints Handling production schedules

Q73: Which of the following best describes 'employer branding'? ▼

The reputation an organization builds as a good place to work The company's product branding strategy The logo design of an organization The company's stock market performance

Q74: Exit interviews are conducted primarily to? ▼

Understand the reasons behind an employee's departure Offer a new job role Approve final settlement immediately Conduct performance appraisal

Q75: The concept of 'quality of work life' primarily focuses on? ▼

Employee satisfaction and well being within the work environment Product quality standards Financial performance of the company Marketing effectiveness

Q76: Which term refers to the process of moving an employee to a different job at the same level? ▼

Transfer Promotion Demotion Termination

Q77: A promotion refers to? ▼

Advancement of an employee to a higher position with greater responsibility Reduction in an employee's rank Termination of employment Transfer to another branch at the same level

Q78: Demotion in an organizational context refers to? ▼

Lowering an employee's rank, pay, or responsibilities Increasing an employee's salary Providing additional training Transferring an employee laterally

Q79: Which of the following is a disciplinary action typically used before termination? ▼

Issuing a warning letter Immediate dismissal Salary increment Promotion

Q80: The principle of natural justice in disciplinary proceedings primarily requires? ▼

A fair hearing before any punitive action Immediate termination without inquiry Only written communication No involvement of the employee

Q81: A domestic inquiry in labour law is conducted to? ▼

Investigate allegations of misconduct against an employee Approve a promotion Process a resignation Conduct recruitment

Q82: Which of the following best defines 'moonlighting' in an employment context? ▼

Taking up additional employment alongside a primary job without employer consent Working night shifts only Taking approved leave Working from home

Q83: Which of the following best defines 'attrition rate'? ▼

The percentage of employees leaving an organization over a specific period The number of new hires in a year The total salary paid to employees The average age of employees

Q84: A balanced scorecard in HR is used to? ▼

Measure organizational performance across multiple dimensions Calculate only financial performance Track employee attendance only Record employee complaints

Q85: Which of the following best describes 'job enrichment'? ▼

Adding more responsibility and challenge to a job role Reducing an employee's workload Increasing the number of employees in a team Reducing an employee's salary

Q86: Job enlargement refers to? ▼

Increasing the scope of a job by adding more tasks at the same level Adding higher responsibility to a role Reducing job tasks Transferring an employee to a new department

Q87: Which of the following is a key objective of a Human Resource Planning process? ▼

Ensuring the right number of employees with the right skills are available Increasing company advertising budget Reducing product prices Expanding office infrastructure

Q88: Which of the following best defines 'career planning'? ▼

A structured process of setting career goals and paths for employees Fixing employee salaries Scheduling employee shifts Reviewing company policies

Q89: A mentor in an organizational context primarily provides? ▼

Guidance and support to a less experienced employee Financial assistance Legal representation Product training only

Q90: Which of the following best describes 'employee empowerment'? ▼

Giving employees authority and autonomy to make decisions Reducing employee salaries Increasing supervision over employees Limiting employee responsibilities

Q91: The term 'downsizing' in HR refers to? ▼

Reducing the size of the workforce to cut costs or improve efficiency Expanding the workforce Increasing employee salaries Providing additional training

Q92: Which of the following best describes 'Voluntary Retirement Scheme'? ▼

A scheme allowing employees to retire early with financial benefits A mandatory retirement policy A promotion scheme A recruitment drive

Q93: Which of the following is a primary objective of Training Need Analysis? ▼

Identifying gaps between current and required employee skills Fixing employee salaries Scheduling company events Approving employee leave

Q94: Which of the following best defines 'coaching' as a training method? ▼

A supervisor guiding an employee to improve performance through direct feedback A group discussion session A written examination A recruitment interview

Q95: Apprenticeship training primarily combines? ▼

Classroom instruction with practical on the job experience Only classroom lectures Only written tests Only online modules

Q96: Which of the following best describes 'vestibule training'? ▼

Training conducted in a simulated work environment separate from the actual workplace Training given directly on the production floor Training given only through lectures Training given only via online modules

Q97: Role playing as a training method is primarily used to develop? ▼

Interpersonal and behavioral skills Technical machine operation skills Financial analysis skills Data entry speed

Q98: Which of the following best defines 'employee welfare'? ▼

Services and facilities provided to improve employee well being Only monetary compensation Only statutory bonus Only annual increments

Q99: Statutory welfare measures for workers are primarily governed under which type of legislation? ▼

Labour welfare laws such as the Factories Act Company tax laws Consumer protection laws Banking regulation laws

Q100: Which of the following best describes 'organizational structure'? ▼

The formal system of task and reporting relationships within an organization The company's marketing plan The physical office layout The company's product line

Q101: A matrix organizational structure combines which two forms of grouping? ▼

Functional and project based structures Line and staff only Centralized and decentralized only Formal and informal only

Q102: Span of control in an organization refers to? ▼

The number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise The number of departments in a company The total employee count The geographic reach of a company

Q103: Which of the following best defines 'decentralization' in an organization? ▼

Distribution of decision making authority to lower levels of management Concentration of authority at the top level Elimination of management layers Outsourcing of HR functions

Why This IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer Mock Test Matters

HR/Personnel Officer is one of the toughest Specialist Officer posts to clear because Professional Knowledge now appears in both Prelims and Mains. A well built mock test shows you the sectional cutoff pressure early, so you stop guessing your readiness and start fixing real gaps in labour law, HR concepts and aptitude speed.

Every question on this page follows the latest IBPS SO exam pattern, with negative marking of one fourth mark for each wrong answer, matching the actual test structure.

IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer Exam Pattern

The IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer selection process runs across three stages: Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and a Common Interview. Candidates must clear each stage before moving to the next one.

Prelims Exam Pattern

The Preliminary Examination has four sections with separate sectional timing, totaling 100 questions and 125 marks in 80 minutes.

Section	Questions	Marks	Duration
English Language	25	25	20 minutes
Reasoning Ability	25	25	20 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude	25	25	20 minutes
Professional Knowledge (HR)	25	50	20 minutes
Total	100	125	80 minutes

Professional Knowledge carries 50 percent of the total marks despite forming only 25 percent of the questions, so every mock attempt on this page weights HR concept questions heavily, matching the real scoring pattern.

Mains Exam Pattern

The Main Examination has an objective paper and a descriptive paper, adding up to 225 marks across 152 questions.

Paper	Questions	Duration	Nature
Objective (English, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, Professional Knowledge)	150	125 minutes	English, Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude are qualifying; Professional Knowledge counts toward merit
Descriptive (HR writing and drafting)	2	30 minutes	Counts toward merit

A candidate can attempt questions in English or Hindi, except the English Language section, which stays in English only. One fourth of the marks assigned to a question gets deducted for each wrong answer in both Prelims and Mains, with no penalty for unattempted questions.

IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer Syllabus

The syllabus splits into aptitude subjects and Professional Knowledge (HR). IBPS has not released a fixed topic list for Professional Knowledge, so the topics below reflect recurring patterns from past papers.

English Language: reading comprehension, error spotting, cloze test, para jumbles, fill in the blanks and sentence correction
Reasoning Ability: puzzles, seating arrangement, syllogism, coding decoding, blood relations, inequalities and input output
Quantitative Aptitude: simplification, data interpretation, profit and loss, time and work, ratio and proportion, and number series
Professional Knowledge (HR): HR planning, recruitment and selection, training and development, performance management, compensation, industrial relations, labour laws such as the Industrial Disputes Act, the POSH Act, the four new Labour Codes, and organizational behavior

Candidates preparing for related banking posts can also review the IBPS SO exam overview and the IBPS PO exam details for a wider comparison of banking career paths.

Eligibility Criteria

A candidate needs a graduate degree along with a two year full time postgraduate degree or postgraduate diploma in one of these streams: Personnel Management, Industrial Relations, Human Resource Development, Social Work or Labour Law.

Age limit: between 20 and 30 years as on the cutoff date set in the official notification
Age relaxation applies for SC, ST, OBC, PwBD, ex servicemen and other categories as per government rules
The qualifying degree result must get declared on or before the date fixed in the notification

Vacancy and Salary

IBPS releases vacancy figures for the HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I) post as part of its yearly Specialist Officer recruitment cycle, alongside posts like IT Officer, Marketing Officer, Law Officer, Agriculture Field Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari. Recent cycles have reported around 81 posts for HR/Personnel Officer, though final numbers depend on the official notification each year.

Component	Detail
Post	HR/Personnel Officer, Scale I
Basic pay (starting)	Around ₹48,480 per month
Basic pay (after increments)	Up to ₹85,920 per month
Additional pay	Dearness Allowance, House Rent Allowance, Transport Allowance and other perks as per the participating bank
Selection weightage	Mains and Interview combine at an 80:20 ratio

The minimum qualifying mark in the interview stands at 40 percent for general category candidates and 35 percent for reserved category candidates.

How to Attempt This IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer Mock Test

Follow these steps to get the most out of every attempt.

Pick the Prelims or Mains mock test based on your current preparation stage
Set a timer that matches the actual sectional duration, so your pace stays realistic
Attempt every section without pausing, then review your score report immediately
Note down weak topics from the Professional Knowledge section first, since it carries the highest weight
Repeat the same mock test after one week to measure real improvement

Related Mock Tests on Sarkari Exam Center

Aspirants preparing for other IBPS SO streams or related banking exams can practice these mock tests as well.

New aspirants can also read how to prepare for Sarkari exams and browse the best books for Sarkari exam preparation to build a full study plan around this mock test series.

Frequently Asked Questions

Does the Prelims exam include Professional Knowledge for HR/Personnel Officer?

Yes. The Preliminary Examination now includes a 25 question Professional Knowledge section worth 50 marks, alongside English, Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude.

Who is eligible for the IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer post?

A graduate with a two year full time postgraduate degree or diploma in HR, Personnel Management, Industrial Relations, Social Work or Labour Law qualifies, subject to the age limit set in the notification.

How many vacancies exist for HR/Personnel Officer in IBPS SO?

Recent IBPS SO cycles have reported around 81 vacancies for the HR/Personnel Officer, Scale I post, though the exact figure changes with each official notification.

Is negative marking applicable in the IBPS SO HR mock test?

Yes, one fourth of the marks assigned to a question gets deducted for every wrong answer, matching the actual Prelims and Mains marking scheme.

Is this IBPS SO HR/Personnel Officer mock test free?

Yes, this mock test remains free to attempt, with instant scoring and section wise result analysis after every attempt.